Did Jesus fulfill Isaiah 6:8 by telling the parable of the sower? ~ Cross reference of Mark 4:10 to Isaiah 6:8
I just fail to get this logic of Jesus. You find this happen in many places in the Greek texts. Let me explain my dilemma based on what the Greek texts claim god loved us so much that he sent his only begotten son so that anyone who believes in him will be saved. Jesus is the son of god and he came to the earth born of a virgin and mentored 12 disciples for 3 years. During these 3 years he taught huge crowds and at times [most times] in parables and the crowd was clueless what he was saying. Each time this happened, his disciples had to come to him in private and ask him what he was trying to say So clearly the crowds did not benefit from his teachings. Only the disciples understood when he explained the teachings plainly. When asked why he teaches in parables, he says so the prophecy in Isaiah can be fulfilled. I am confused if the god that the Greek text is talking about is the same G-d who created this amazing universe that works with such precision, then this plan ...